Domain: tiger-web1.srvr.media3.us Physics Question re Good/ICE Incident | Page 2 | Political Talk
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re: Physics Question re Good/ICE Incident

Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:09 pm to
Posted by LSUtoBOOT
Member since Aug 2012
19493 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:09 pm to
Violated Newton’s fourth law of relativity, frick around and find out.
Posted by RelentlessAnalysis
AggieHank Alter
Member since Oct 2025
2968 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:11 pm to
quote:

Acceleration before impact is irrelevant except for setting the impact velocity.
The force of the hit comes from how quickly the car’s momentum changes during the collision, not from how it accelerated beforehand. Two cars that reach the same speed will hit with similar force if they stop over the same time or distance, regardless of how hard they accelerated to get there. Impact force depends on change in velocity over collision time, not pre-impact acceleration.
That was my thought as well, but several posters really seemed to see "acceleration" as the key factor. I was just wondering whether there was any substance to the distinction.

Apparently not. Thanks
Posted by theballguy
Colorado (home) & DC (work)
Member since Oct 2011
34554 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:12 pm to
At the moment of impact only the vehicle’s speed and how quickly its forward motion is stopped matters not whether the vehicle was accelerating beforehand.

In any event, if she would have been peacefully protesting and not impeding officers' work, none of this happens.
Posted by Blizzard of Chizz
Member since Apr 2012
21049 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:12 pm to
I did the math earlier but the vehicle actually weighs about 4700 pounds. Velocity at impact at approximately 3 mph and a travel distance of about 2 feet. Anyway, I think the force of impact comes out to be in the neighborhood of around 400 lbf.

Obviously someone double check my math. I’m probably wrong but that’s what I came up with
Posted by AllbyMyRelf
Virginia
Member since Nov 2014
4066 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:12 pm to
In a collision, the relevant acceleration (F=ma) is the deceleration during impact, as the object’s velocity changes from its impact speed to (roughly) zero over a very short time. That acceleration is what produces the force.
Posted by Diamondawg
Mississippi
Member since Oct 2006
37470 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:12 pm to
quote:

First downvote. Didn’t even read.
don’t get on Hank’s bad side.
Posted by theballguy
Colorado (home) & DC (work)
Member since Oct 2011
34554 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:13 pm to
quote:

Violated Newton’s fourth law of relativity, frick around and find out.



Could not say it better
Posted by JimEverett
Member since May 2020
2077 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:15 pm to
quote:

I am genuinely interested as to why a fair number of posters are focused upon "acceleration" rather than "velocity."


Probably because she accelerated the vehicle. I have never heard "he velocitized the vehicle" i dont think that is even a word
Posted by jimmy the leg
Member since Aug 2007
43073 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:17 pm to
quote:

assuming the agent was hit at all


You are a loon.
Posted by onmymedicalgrind
Nunya
Member since Dec 2012
11762 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:18 pm to
quote:

Regarding the vehicle hitting the agent, a number of posters have emphasized the fact that the vehicle was accelerating, such that the impact upon the agent would be measured as mass (of the vehicle) multiplied by its acceleration. By comparison, if the vehicle had been traveling at a steady velocity, the impact upon the agent would be measured as mass multiplied by velocity.

My friend, if you are trying to have a physics discussion you have to start by using the proper terminology.

“Impact” is not a physics term. “Impulse” is the closest phonetically, but otherwise it looks like you are confusing force with momentum.

F=ma
p=mv

quote:

But why is "acceleration" the issue, rather than "velocity?"

Simply put, a body with 0 acceleration has 0 force. So a body moving with constant velocity by definition has no force vector. That’s why acceleration matters.
quote:

If the vehicle weighed 2000 pounds, was accelerating and had reached a velocity of 2mph at the time of impact, how or why would that be "worse" for the agent than if the same vehicle had been traveling at a steady velocity of 2mp and NOT accelerating? Either way, the agent is hit by 2000 pounds traveling at 2mph, right?

Incorrect. Do you think a. body that has decelerated just prior to contact exerts the same force as a body that accelerated to that same velocity? The answer is mathematically “no.”
Posted by onmymedicalgrind
Nunya
Member since Dec 2012
11762 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:18 pm to
Oops
This post was edited on 1/14/26 at 4:20 pm
Posted by Cromulent
Down the Bayou
Member since Oct 2016
3258 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:18 pm to
No more illegals to help cross the border so you've resorted to this Hank?
Posted by Robin Masters
Birmingham
Member since Jul 2010
35700 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:22 pm to
quote:

That was my thought as well, but several posters really seemed to see "acceleration" as the key factor. I was just wondering whether there was any substance to the distinction. Apparently not. Thanks


At 60 mph if a car hit you it won’t really matter much if it let off the gas just prior to running you over.

But a car that is just beginning to accelerate I think the difference would be marked. Accelerate into a wall at 5mph vs hit a wall while decelerating from 5mph. The damage to the wall would be considerably more due to the force of the engine used to push a 4000lb car forward.
Posted by davyjones
NELA
Member since Feb 2019
35368 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:28 pm to
None of that matters, it’s a matter of whether a reasonable officer/agent would have, in the moment, perceived an imminent threat of death or great bodily injury to self or others, given the totality of the circumstances, without the use of hindsight.

That’s the general legal standard as to whether the officer/agent was justified in his or her use of force in the particular situation. It’s not that hard. I wouldn’t think you have to be a criminal law attorney to grasp this, but I’m starting to question my prior beliefs in that regard. There are some very terse yet critical key terms/phrases/concepts therein. “In the moment”; “totality of the circumstances”; and “without the use of hindsight” are the ones that, if pressed, I personally would pick out as the “most” consequential, but that’s JMO. The entire passage and each of its elements are rather weighty.
Posted by Bard
Definitely NOT an admin
Member since Oct 2008
58299 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:28 pm to
I can't speak for other posters, to me the issue is that she hit him at all (she has no right to flee arrest, after all).

Contrary to LowT's wishcasting post, she did hit him.

The only reason I could see an argument over acceleration versus velocity is if some moonbat decided to make the argument that her vehicle was just slowly idling toward him. At that point, "acceleration" would go toward the argument that she was speeding up because she consciously put her foot heavily on the gas in an attempt to flee.

It's nothing more than a "angels on the head of a pin" debate.
Posted by Fanatics
Member since Nov 2025
234 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:30 pm to
3197.83 N or 707 ibf is what I got, more than enough to cause serious bodily harm or death.
Posted by SpecialK_88
Member since Dec 2025
273 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:31 pm to
quote:

I am genuinely interested as to why a fair number of posters are focused upon "acceleration" rather than "velocity."


Because mass x acceleration gives you force, which is easier for us to have a sense of its magnitude because we can easily quantify it and experience it through things like lifting weights.

When people bring up velocity they are referring to kinetic energy which is also a valid way to look at it but it gives you different units and less of a real world sense of value.

WITH THAT SAID, talking about the car mass and resulting force is irrelevant as that is not the force applied to the officer, and would only be valid if he was pinned and his body was so rigid that it allows no deflection causing the car to come to a stop from equal forces (ie not possible, and the car would crush him before his body experienced that full force).

The reality is, the max force he could have experienced was the cars acceleration x his mass. He’d experience a similar force if he was the one in the drivers seat accelerating. It’s just instead of that force being applied by a cushioned chair, it’s applied by the more rigid front end.

-You can trust me I’m an engineer
This post was edited on 1/14/26 at 4:36 pm
Posted by MemphisGuy
Germantown, TN
Member since Nov 2023
14047 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:32 pm to
quote:

I am asking a sincere question here ... not trying to set up some gotcha or anything.
Posted by Nurbis
Member since May 2020
2237 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:32 pm to
quote:

There's also the fact that, assuming the agent was hit at all,


There is no need to guess or assume. A clearer video has been posted here that shows that he was hit by the car. If you care enough to comment on it and post about it, then you should care enough to gather all of the information and be educated on what happened. Don't ignore data just because you know it makes your stance harder to defend.
Posted by AlterEd
Cydonia, Mars
Member since Dec 2024
4857 posts
Posted on 1/14/26 at 4:32 pm to
quote:

Physics Question


Wrong board. Downvoted
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